Name the Four dimensions of Service Management.
A) Organisations & people, Information & technology, partners & suppliers, value streams & processes.
B) Value streams & processes, organizations & technology, partners & resources, costs & benefits.
C) Value, outcomes, costs & risks.
D) Budgeting, accounting, charging & value on investment
Once designed, Value Streams should.
A) Not improved until the next full audit review
B) Only improved if an issue is identified.
C) Improved continually.
D) Not improved at all
What is the description of the skill set of the ideal staff member?
A) U-Shaped
B) T-Shaped
C) I-Shaped
D) Ship-Shaped
How are Value Streams created?
A) Value Streams are created by specific combinations of Value Chain activities & Practices
B) Value Streams are created by a combination of Assets & Capabilities.
C) Value Streams are created by a combination of Incidents & Problems.
D) Value Streams are created by a combination of defined inputs & outputs.
Risks …?
A) Cannot be avoided
B) Should be avoided
C) Are always negative
D) Can represent the possibility of something good happening
What is defined as the “ability of an IT service or other configuration item to perform its agreed function when required?”
A) Performance
B) Availability
C) Security
D) IT Asset
Service Offerings may include?
A) Goods, access to resources and service actions
B) Resources, assets, and capabilities
C) Service consumption, service provision, and service relationships
D) Value realisation, value loss and profit realisation
Which of the following statements is most correct?
A) Value is subjective and is influenced by factors such as financial cost, perceptions, previous experiences, speed, ease of use, safety etc
B) Value is purely objective and can only be measured by money spent and made
C) Value can only be provided by the service provider to the customer
D) Value is the responsibility of the customer to provide to the users
Known Errors are?
A) Incidents that have had their cause identified.
B) Problems that are awaiting identification.
C) A problem that has been analysed and has not been resolved.
D) Problems that have had Changes raised against them.
Which statement about SLA targets is correct?
A) Use of a single target can result in the “watermelon effect”
B) Use of a single target is ideal
C) Use of multiple targets is desirable, the more the better
D) In line with the Guiding Principle “Keep it simple and practical”, SLAs should never have more than one target
The purpose of the _____________ practice is to move new or changed hardware, software, documentation, processes, or any other component to live environments. It may also be involved in deploying components to other environments for testing or staging.
A) Incident Management Practice
B) Problem Management Practice
C) Service Request Management Practice
D) Deployment Management Practice
The statement "the addition, modification, or removal of anything that could have a direct or indirect effect on services" is…?
A) The purpose of Change Control
B) The definition of a Change
C) The purpose of Release Management
D) The definition of a Release
What is the trigger for activities in the SVS?
A) A Service Request
B) A Third-Party Contract
C) Desire For New Functionality
D) Opportunity & Demand
What is this a definition of?
“Functionality offered by a product or service to meet a particular need."
A) An assurance that a product or service will meet agreed requirements.
B) Utility
C) Information security management
D) Service relationship management
"The perceived benefits, usefulness and importance of something.”
A) Costs
B) Risks
C) Value
D) Governance
"A result for a stakeholder enabled by one or more outputs”.
A) Service Achievement
B) Warranty
C) Outcome
D) Service Offering
What is this a definition of
"A problem that has been analysed and has not been resolved.”
A) An Incident
B) Root Cause
C) A Known Error
D) A Release
What are the three phases of Problem Management?
A) Problem Resolution, Problem Solving, Problem Eradication
B) Problem Identification, Problem Control, Error Control
C) Problem Resistance, Problem Recovery, Problem Fixing
D) Problem Review, Problem identification, Problem analysis
Change control should …?
A) Authorise every change to increase agility
B) Balance the cost of the change against the risk
C) Balance the costs and risks of making the change against the expected business benefits
D) Authorise only those changes that will not fail
"A cause, or potential cause, of one or more incidents.”
A) A Service Disruption
B) A Service Interruption
C) An Incident
D) A Problem
Which of the following statements about Incident Management is true?
A) Every Incident must be resolved immediately
B) Every Incident must have its cause determined
C) Every Incident must be resolved in less than the target time
D) Every Incident must be managed in line with agreed, realistic targets
What is true of the Guiding Principle “Collaborate and promote visibility”?
A) Everyone must agree with the next course of action
B) Every stakeholder must agree the next course of action
C) Collaboration does not mean consensus
D) Collaboration does mean consensus with everyone
Which statement about the relationship of Change Control and Incident Management is true?
A) Every Incident has occurred because something has changed, therefore formal Changes always cause Incidents
B) Incidents are planned outages, therefore formal Changes always cause Incidents
C) Incidents are unplanned outages, therefore formal Changes are not the same thing as Incidents
D) The resolution of Incidents cannot involve formal Change Control, as that would make them Problems
The Problem management practice contributes to the Deliver & Support Value Chain Activity by:
A) preventing incident repetition and supporting timely incident resolution
B) by preventing incident causes and supporting quality incident resolution
C) by preventing all incidents, thereby reducing the importance of the Incident Management practice
D) by preventing all incidents, thereby reducing the importance of the Change Control practice
"Activities performed by an organization to provide services."
A) Work Commitments
B) Work Schedule
C) Service Provision
D) Service Commitment
Who can close an Incident record?
A) Senior Management
B) Technical Team Leaders
C) The Consumer
D) The Service Desk
What is the definition of an Event?
A) “any change of state that has significance for the management of a service value chain”
B) “any change of state that has significance for the management of a service or other configuration item”
C) “any change of state that has significance for the management of a service value system”
D “any change of state that has significance for the management of a service’s value”
Service Requests should …?
A) Not be automated, as they are all different
B) Should all be automated
C) Be automated to the greatest degree possible
D) Should be automated only if they trigger other processes, such as Change Control
The Service Desk should be …?
A) Outsourced whenever possible to save money
B) Adequately resourced, motivated, lead and supported
C) Only outsourced if there are problems with the Service Desk
D) Automated in every case
Which of the following is a correct name of one of the Guiding Principles?
A) Start where you arrive
B) Progress iteratively with feedback
C) Collaborate and predict visibility
D) Keep it simple and precise
What is this the Purpose of?
"To capture demand for incident resolution and service requests. It should also be the entry point and single point of contact for the service provider with all of its users.”
A) Workforce & talent management practice
B) Problem management practice
C) Incident management practice
D) Service desk practice
Which of these is NOT a guiding principle?
A) Focus On Value
B) Start Where You Are
C) Adopt An Agile Mentality
D) Progress Iteratively With Feedback
"A person or a group of people that has its own functions with responsibilities, authorities and relationships to achieve its objectives.”
A) A Team
B) A Function
C) A Process
D) An Organisation
Which of the following statements is correct?
A) Utility is fitness for use
B) Utility is fitness for purpose
C) Utility is both fitness for purpose and fitness for usefulness
D) Utility is fitness for availability
What is the output of the SVS?
A) System Validation
B) Value
C) Return On Investment
D) Restoration Of Service
"The assurance that a product or service will meet agreed requirements."
A) Utility
C) Service offering
D) IT Asset Management
What is this a purpose of?
"To support the agreed quality of a service by handling all pre-defined, user-initiated service requests in an effective and user-friendly manner.”
A) Service relationship management
B) Service Design practice
C) Service offerings
D) Service request management practice
"A means of enabling value co-creation by facilitating outcomes that customers want to achieve, without the customer having to manage specific costs and risks.”
A) A Service
B) Service Management
C) Supplier Management
D) Service Continuity Management
"A set of specialised organisational capabilities for enabling value for customers in the form of services"
A) Service Integration And Management (SIAM)
C) Service Consumption
D) Service Provision
What document should be ‘widely published and produced’ so everyone is aware of changes that have been logged, and are coming up for discussion?
A) Project Plan
B) Release Plan
C) Deployment Plan
D) Change Schedule
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