ITIL® 4 Foundation Quiz Questions and Answers

ITIL® 4 is the very latest version of ITIL®. This one hour, 40 question quiz should really test your knowledge of the very latest thinking in IT Service Management 'Best Practice'.
  • Question 1
  • Question 2
  • Question 3
  • Question 4
  • Question 5
  • Question 6
  • Question 7
  • Question 8
  • Question 9
  • Question 10
  • Question 11
  • Question 12
  • Question 13
  • Question 14
  • Question 15
  • Question 16
  • Question 17
  • Question 18
  • Question 19
  • Question 20
  • Question 21
  • Question 22
  • Question 23
  • Question 24
  • Question 25
  • Question 26
  • Question 27
  • Question 28
  • Question 29
  • Question 30
  • Question 31
  • Question 32
  • Question 33
  • Question 34
  • Question 35
  • Question 36
  • Question 37
  • Question 38
  • Question 39
  • Question 40
Question 1 ID: 900

Name the Four dimensions of Service Management.

A) Organisations & people, Information & technology, partners & suppliers, value streams & processes.

B) Value streams & processes, organizations & technology, partners & resources, costs & benefits.

C) Value, outcomes, costs & risks.

D) Budgeting, accounting, charging & value on investment

Answers

Question 2 ID: 910

Once designed, Value Streams should.

A) Not improved until the next full audit review

B) Only improved if an issue is identified.

C) Improved continually.

D) Not improved at all

Answers

Question 3 ID: 641

What is the description of the skill set of the ideal staff member?

A) U-Shaped

B) T-Shaped

C) I-Shaped

D) Ship-Shaped

Answers

Question 4 ID: 909

How are Value Streams created?

A) Value Streams are created by specific combinations of Value Chain activities & Practices

B) Value Streams are created by a combination of Assets & Capabilities.

C) Value Streams are created by a combination of Incidents & Problems.

D) Value Streams are created by a combination of defined inputs & outputs.

Answers

Question 5 ID: 634

Risks …?

A) Cannot be avoided

B) Should be avoided

C) Are always negative

D) Can represent the possibility of something good happening

Answers

Question 6 ID: 653

What is defined as the “ability of an IT service or other configuration item to perform its agreed function when required?”

A) Performance

B) Availability

C) Security

D) IT Asset

Answers

Question 7 ID: 894

Service Offerings may include?

A) Goods, access to resources and service actions

B) Resources, assets, and capabilities

C) Service consumption, service provision, and service relationships

D) Value realisation, value loss and profit realisation

Answers

Question 8 ID: 633

Which of the following statements is most correct?

A) Value is subjective and is influenced by factors such as financial cost, perceptions, previous experiences, speed, ease of use, safety etc

B) Value is purely objective and can only be measured by money spent and made

C) Value can only be provided by the service provider to the customer

D) Value is the responsibility of the customer to provide to the users

Answers

Question 9 ID: 666

Known Errors are?

A) Incidents that have had their cause identified.

B) Problems that are awaiting identification.

C) A problem that has been analysed and has not been resolved.

D) Problems that have had Changes raised against them.

Answers

Question 10 ID: 670

Which statement about SLA targets is correct?

A) Use of a single target can result in the “watermelon effect”

B) Use of a single target is ideal

C) Use of multiple targets is desirable, the more the better

D) In line with the Guiding Principle “Keep it simple and practical”, SLAs should never have more than one target

Answers

Question 11 ID: 914

The purpose of the _____________ practice is to move new or changed hardware, software, documentation, processes, or any other component to live environments. It may also be involved in deploying components to other environments for testing or staging.

A) Incident Management Practice

B) Problem Management Practice

C) Service Request Management Practice

D) Deployment Management Practice

Answers

Question 12 ID: 656

The statement "the addition, modification, or removal of anything that could have a direct or indirect effect on services" is…?

A) The purpose of Change Control

B) The definition of a Change

C) The purpose of Release Management

D) The definition of a Release

Answers

Question 13 ID: 904

What is the trigger for activities in the SVS?

A) A Service Request

B) A Third-Party Contract

C) Desire For New Functionality

D) Opportunity & Demand

Answers

Question 14 ID: 883

What is this a definition of?

“Functionality offered by a product or service to meet a particular need."

A) An assurance that a product or service will meet agreed requirements.

B) Utility

C) Information security management

D) Service relationship management

Answers

Question 15 ID: 887

What is this a definition of?

"The perceived benefits, usefulness and importance of something.”

A) Costs

B) Risks

C) Value

D) Governance

Answers

Question 16 ID: 890

What is this a definition of?

"A result for a stakeholder enabled by one or more outputs”.

A) Service Achievement

B) Warranty

C) Outcome

D) Service Offering

Answers

Question 17 ID: 921

What is this a definition of

"A problem that has been analysed and has not been resolved.”

A) An Incident

B) Root Cause

C) A Known Error

D) A Release

Answers

Question 18 ID: 922

What are the three phases of Problem Management?

A) Problem Resolution, Problem Solving, Problem Eradication

B) Problem Identification, Problem Control, Error Control

C) Problem Resistance, Problem Recovery, Problem Fixing

D) Problem Review, Problem identification, Problem analysis

Answers

Question 19 ID: 664

Change control should …?

A) Authorise every change to increase agility

B) Balance the cost of the change against the risk

C) Balance the costs and risks of making the change against the expected business benefits

D) Authorise only those changes that will not fail

Answers

Question 20 ID: 920

What is this a definition of?

"A cause, or potential cause, of one or more incidents.”

A) A Service Disruption

B) A Service Interruption

C) An Incident

D) A Problem

Answers

Question 21 ID: 658

Which of the following statements about Incident Management is true?

A) Every Incident must be resolved immediately

B) Every Incident must have its cause determined

C) Every Incident must be resolved in less than the target time

D) Every Incident must be managed in line with agreed, realistic targets

Answers

Question 22 ID: 639

What is true of the Guiding Principle “Collaborate and promote visibility”?

A) Everyone must agree with the next course of action

B) Every stakeholder must agree the next course of action

C) Collaboration does not mean consensus

D) Collaboration does mean consensus with everyone

Answers

Question 23 ID: 665

Which statement about the relationship of Change Control and Incident Management is true?

A) Every Incident has occurred because something has changed, therefore formal Changes always cause Incidents

B) Incidents are planned outages, therefore formal Changes always cause Incidents

C) Incidents are unplanned outages, therefore formal Changes are not the same thing as Incidents

D) The resolution of Incidents cannot involve formal Change Control, as that would make them Problems

Answers

Question 24 ID: 667

The Problem management practice contributes to the Deliver & Support Value Chain Activity by:

A) preventing incident repetition and supporting timely incident resolution

B) by preventing incident causes and supporting quality incident resolution

C) by preventing all incidents, thereby reducing the importance of the Incident Management practice

D) by preventing all incidents, thereby reducing the importance of the Change Control practice

Answers

Question 25 ID: 897

What is this a definition of?

"Activities performed by an organization to provide services."

A) Work Commitments

B) Work Schedule

C) Service Provision

D) Service Commitment

Answers

Question 26 ID: 919

Who can close an Incident record?

A) Senior Management

B) Technical Team Leaders

C) The Consumer

D) The Service Desk

Answers

Question 27 ID: 654

What is the definition of an Event?

A) “any change of state that has significance for the management of a service value chain”

B) “any change of state that has significance for the management of a service or other configuration item”

C) “any change of state that has significance for the management of a service value system”

D “any change of state that has significance for the management of a service’s value”

Answers

Question 28 ID: 660

Service Requests should …?

A) Not be automated, as they are all different

B) Should all be automated

C) Be automated to the greatest degree possible

D) Should be automated only if they trigger other processes, such as Change Control

Answers

Question 29 ID: 661

The Service Desk should be …?

A) Outsourced whenever possible to save money

B) Adequately resourced, motivated, lead and supported

C) Only outsourced if there are problems with the Service Desk

D) Automated in every case

Answers

Question 30 ID: 640

Which of the following is a correct name of one of the Guiding Principles?

A) Start where you arrive

B) Progress iteratively with feedback

C) Collaborate and predict visibility

D) Keep it simple and precise

Answers

Question 31 ID: 925

What is this the Purpose of?

"To capture demand for incident resolution and service requests. It should also be the entry point and single point of contact for the service provider with all of its users.”

A) Workforce & talent management practice

B) Problem management practice

C) Incident management practice

D) Service desk practice

Answers

Question 32 ID: 899

Which of these is NOT a guiding principle?

A) Focus On Value

B) Start Where You Are

C) Adopt An Agile Mentality

D) Progress Iteratively With Feedback

Answers

Question 33 ID: 888

What is this a definition of?

"A person or a group of people that has its own functions with responsibilities, authorities and relationships to achieve its objectives.”

A) A Team

B) A Function

C) A Process

D) An Organisation

Answers

Question 34 ID: 632

Which of the following statements is correct?

A) Utility is fitness for use

B) Utility is fitness for purpose

C) Utility is both fitness for purpose and fitness for usefulness

D) Utility is fitness for availability

Answers

Question 35 ID: 905

What is the output of the SVS?

A) System Validation

B) Value

C) Return On Investment

D) Restoration Of Service

Answers

Question 36 ID: 884

What is this a definition of?

"The assurance that a product or service will meet agreed requirements."

A) Utility

B) Warranty

C) Service offering

D) IT Asset Management

Answers

Question 37 ID: 923

What is this a purpose of?

"To support the agreed quality of a service by handling all pre-defined, user-initiated service requests in an effective and user-friendly manner.”

A) Service relationship management

B) Service Design practice

C) Service offerings

D) Service request management practice

Answers

Question 38 ID: 882

What is this a definition of?

"A means of enabling value co-creation by facilitating outcomes that customers want to achieve, without the customer having to manage specific costs and risks.”

A) A Service

B) Service Management

C) Supplier Management

D) Service Continuity Management

Answers

Question 39 ID: 886

What is this a definition of?

"A set of specialised organisational capabilities for enabling value for customers in the form of services"

A) Service Integration And Management (SIAM)

B) Service Management

C) Service Consumption

D) Service Provision

Answers

Question 40 ID: 917

What document should be ‘widely published and produced’ so everyone is aware of changes that have been logged, and are coming up for discussion?

A) Project Plan

B) Release Plan

C) Deployment Plan

D) Change Schedule

Answers